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What are the two basic kinds of wealth acquisition that Aristotle distinguishes?

What are the two basic kinds of wealth acquisition that Aristotle distinguishes?

There are two sorts of wealth-getting, as I have said; one is a part of household management, the other is retail trade: the former necessary and honorable, while that which consists in exchange is justly censured; for it is unnatural, and a mode by which men gain from one another.

How many types of wealth did Aristotle mention?

Here, Aristotle considered three types of goods: “external goods, goods of the soul and goods of the body” (1932, 1323a. 25–30), the first of which is limited.

What are Aristotle’s limits on acquiring property?

While Aristotle was critical of money-making, he still opposed any limitation — such as Plato had advocated — on an individual’s accumulation of private property. Instead, education should teach people voluntarily to curb their rampant desires and thus lead them to limit their own accumulations of wealth.

How did Aristotle define natural desires?

To answer these questions Aristotle argued that not all desires are the same. Acquired desires—say for caviar—are things we want, whereas natural desires—say for food—are things we need. Acquired desires or wants correspond to apparent goods; things that appear good because we want them.

Is there a moral limit to wealth?

The moral case for wealth cannot rest on how the wealthy use their money. If a person uses moral means to obtain his or her wealth it is moral, i.e., in the “right hands.” But if the means by which the wealth is obtained are immoral, then so is possession of that wealth, regardless of how it is used.

What did Aristotle accomplish?

He made pioneering contributions to all fields of philosophy and science, he invented the field of formal logic, and he identified the various scientific disciplines and explored their relationships to each other. Aristotle was also a teacher and founded his own school in Athens, known as the Lyceum.

Did Aristotle grow up rich?

384: Born in Stagira, an Ionian colony on the Chalkidike peninsula, to a wealthy, aristocratic family; son of Nicomachus, Court Physician to King of Macedon, Amyntas II. Aristotle was wealthy in his own right, married into great wealth, and had the support of wealthy, powerful rulers.

Why did Plato and Aristotle differ on ownership of property?

Plato argued that private property should not exist and property should fall under the ‘umbrella’ of joint ownership to ensure peace and justice. Aristotle consequently adopted his teacher’s notions in relation property but focused on a more individualistic aspect of the property.

What is Aristotle’s view of private property?

Aristotle states that “it is a fact of common observation that those who own common property, and share in its management, are far more at variance with one another than those who have property separately.” Private property unambiguously allocates resources, while collective ownership can lead to disputes over what …

Is a successful person automatically happy according to Aristotle?

According to Aristotle, happiness consists in achieving, through the course of a whole lifetime, all the goods — health, wealth, knowledge, friends, etc. — that lead to the perfection of human nature and to the enrichment of human life. This requires us to make choices, some of which may be very difficult.

What is Aristotle’s good life?

Aristotle argues that what separates human beings from the other animals is the human reason. So the good life is one in which a person cultivates and exercises their rational faculties by, for instance, engaging in scientific inquiry, philosophical discussion, artistic creation, or legislation.

Can Philosophers Be rich?

Aristotle is rumoured to have said that; “It is easy for philosophers to be rich if they choose, but this is not what they care about.” He apparently said this after seeing Thales of Miletus turn his fortunes around after living in poverty and being taunted with the uselessness of philosophy.”